Are you gearing up for the UPSC Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims 2026? Consistent revision of static syllabus topics is crucial for success. As part of its daily subject-wise quiz initiative, UPSC Essentials presents a set of important questions focusing on Polity and Governance. This exercise for Week 144 is designed to help aspirants assess their understanding and reinforce key concepts.
Question 1: Understanding the Procedure for Removal of a Judge
This question tests the constitutional and statutory framework governing the removal of judges in India, a critical topic concerning judicial independence. Consider the following statements:
- A judge may be removed from office through a motion adopted by parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
- The constitution provides that a judge can be removed only by an order of the president, based on a motion passed by both houses of parliament.
- The procedure for the removal of judges is provided in the Constitution of India.
- The speaker or chairman decides to either admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation and Answer:
The process for removing a judge is a blend of constitutional mandate and parliamentary law. Article 124(4) of the Constitution states that a judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament. This address must be supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. The grounds are proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
However, the detailed procedure for investigation and proof of misbehaviour or incapacity is not outlined in the Constitution itself. It is provided by a separate statute, The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Under the 1968 Act, an impeachment motion can originate in either House. A notice signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha must be submitted to the Speaker or Chairman, respectively. The presiding officer has the discretion to admit or refuse to admit the motion after preliminary scrutiny. Thus, statement 4 is correct.
The correct answer is option (b) – 1, 2 and 4.
Question 2: The Role and Nature of Foreigners’ Tribunals
With reference to the Foreigners’ Tribunal, consider the following statements:
- The District Magistrate decides whether the Appellant is a “foreigner” or not.
- These are quasi-judicial bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation and Answer:
Foreigners’ Tribunals are specialized bodies constituted under The Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, issued by the Central Government. Their primary function is to determine if a person is a foreigner under The Foreigners Act, 1946.
While the District Magistrate (DM) has the authority to refer a case to a Tribunal or to even constitute one, the DM does not make the final adjudication on an individual's citizenship status. That legal determination is the sole prerogative of the Tribunal. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Foreigners’ Tribunals operate as quasi-judicial bodies. They have the powers of a civil court and their orders are legally binding. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
The correct answer is option (b) – 2 only.
Question 3: States Under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
At present, the Sixth Schedule applies to which of the following states?
- Assam
- Manipur
- Ladakh
- Mizoram
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Tripura
Explanation and Answer:
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, under Article 244, provides for the administration of tribal areas in certain states through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs). These ADCs are granted significant legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy over specific matters like land, forests, water, and customary law.
Currently, the provisions of the Sixth Schedule are applicable to the tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura. Notably, Meghalaya is not listed in the options, but Assam, Mizoram, and Tripura are. Manipur, Ladakh, and Arunachal Pradesh are not covered under the Sixth Schedule (though Ladakh has demands for its inclusion).
The correct answer is option (d) – 1, 4 and 6 (Assam, Mizoram, and Tripura).
Question 4: The Concept of 'Voter Turnout'
With reference to the ‘Voter Turnout’, consider the following statements:
- It is represented as a percentage.
- The concept of “Voter Turnout” is defined in the election laws.
Explanation and Answer:
Voter Turnout is a commonly used metric to gauge electoral participation. It is calculated as the percentage of voters who cast their vote out of the total number of registered electors in a constituency. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Interestingly, the term “Voter Turnout” is not formally defined in any Indian election law or statute, such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It is a statistical and analytical term that has gained popular usage through media, academia, and the Election Commission's reports. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
The correct answer is option (a) – 1 only.
Question 5: Passport Rights and Article 21
The Supreme Court has held that pending criminal cases do not automatically bar citizens from obtaining or renewing passports, as this right falls under the right to life protected under:
Explanation and Answer:
In a significant ruling, the Supreme Court of India has expanded the scope of Article 21, which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. The Court held that the right to obtain a passport and the freedom to travel abroad are integral to personal liberty under Article 21.
The bench emphasized that a pending criminal case cannot be grounds for an automatic or blanket denial of a passport. Any restriction must be proportionate, follow due process, and be subject to judicial oversight. The right to travel is not a state-granted privilege but a fundamental aspect of liberty.
The correct answer is option (a) – Article 21.
Regular practice through such targeted quizzes is essential for UPSC aspirants to identify strengths, address weaknesses, and build confidence for the challenging Prelims examination.
